DOES SCRIPTURE PROVE

GOD WILL SAVE EVERYONE?

 

We all here believe God will save all.   I’ll play the theologian’s advocate while you give me some Scriptural proof……………………

 

Does the word “all” always mean that everyone is included?

 

Most theologians despise the Word of God saying “all” means only as many as actually are or will be according to context and their own doctrines, therefore “all” never means all when referring to salvation. 

Here’s one of their proof texts:

 

“And there went out unto Him all [Gk: #3956 pas, ‘all, any, every, the whole, every, as many as], the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all [Gk: #3956 pas, ‘all, any, every, the whole, every, as many as], baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins”  (Mark 1:5).

 

Did every single person in the land and city go out to John? NO.

Did every single person who did go out get baptized by John? NO

Here’s proof the Pharisees were not baptized:

 

“But when he [John] saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees come to his baptism, he said unto them, O generation of vipers, who hath warned you to flee from the wrath to come? Bring forth therefore fruits meet for repentance” (Matt. 3:7-8)

 

So then, are the following Scriptures proof that “all” means everyone?

    

1Ti 2:4  Who will have all [Gk: #3956 pas, ‘all, any, every, the whole, every, as many as], men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.

 

[1]  They say “will” means “desire” and not God’s absolute will.

[2]  They say “all” means all that repent on their own free will.

 

“For therefore we both labor and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Savior of all [Gk: #3956 pas, ‘all, any, every, the whole, every, as many as] men, specially of those that believe”  (I Tim. 4:10). 

 

They say “all” means all nations, not every individual.

 

Why is there not a Greek word like “all” that always and under all circumstances means every last single one or thing?  Well, for one thing, Satan could not then deceive the whole world of Christendom?

 

“But the word of the LORD was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little, and there a little; that they might go, and fall backward, and be broken, and snared, and taken”  (Isa. 28:13).

 

What Scriptures then prove the salvation of all? Back in Pennsylvania we had a saying: “There is more than one way to skin a cat.”

 

DO ALL SCRIPTURES USING “ALL” MEAN ONLY SOME?

 

“But I say unto you, That every [pas—ALL]  idle word that men shall speak, they shall give account thereof in the day of judgment”  (Matt. 12:36).

 

Are only some idle words to be judged?

 

“But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceeds out of the mouth of God”  (Matt. 4:4).

 

Would theologians argue that “all” means only “some” in this verse?

 

“For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God” (Rom. 3:23).

 

Well, “all” are not saved, then maybe not “all” have sinned? Do theologians argue that this means only some have sinned, not all? No, they don’t. Why?  Because they don’t have a personal problem with all being sinners, but do have a major problem with all being saved, because they are vengeful, hate-filled, unconverted, hypocrites!  They realy, realy, realy don’t want all to be saved.

 

Is there other proof that all have sinned?

 

“They are all [is that the proof? Not according to theologians]] gone out of the way, they are together [is that the proof? No according to theologians] become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one [THERE’S the proof that even theologians cannot deny](Rom. 3:12).

 

That there is “none good, no , not one” is proof all have sinned.”

But can we prove that “all men saved” mean every last one?

         

First, here’s the proof that “not” (Gk: ou, never means “some or any.”

 

Not [Gk: #3756 ou, ‘no, not, nay, neither, never, none, nothing’] every one [Gk: #3956 pas, ‘all, any, every, the whole, every, as many as’],  that says unto Me, Lord, Lord shall enter into the kingdom of heaven, BUT… (Matt. 7:21).

 

So ‘ou pas’ translated “Not every…” is literally, “ou pas/no all,” which means “no ALL, no ANY, no MANY, no whatsoever MANY OR FEW,”  “But [only] he that does the will of My Father”  (Matt. 7:21b).  Not a single person who doesn’t do the will of Jesus’ Father, will be in the kingdom of heaven.  Can you see that? Are you sure?  This is not as easy as most may have assumed. We will now use this. 

 

DEDUCING SCRIPTURAL TRUTH

 

If Nazareth is north of Jerusalem, and Bethlehem is south of Jerusalem, we can “deduce” that Bethlehem is also south of Nazareth, even if we did not have a Bible verse to tell us this.

Now let’s test it on the following verse:

 

 “The Lord is not [#3856, ou—‘no, not, nay, never’] slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not  [Gk:  #3361 me,  ‘not, any, neither, never, no, none, nor, nothing’] willing [Gk: #1014 boulomai, ‘to will be willing, disposed, minded, intend] that any [Gk: #5100 tis, ‘some, any, a, thing, at all, certain, divers, every man, one, ought, some {man, body, thing, what} no thing] should perish [Gk: apollumi, ‘perish, destroy, lose’], but that all [Gk: pas—all, as many as] should come to repentance”  (II Pet. 3:9).

 

We all are in a state of apollumi—perishing, lost, or being destroyed, so this is speaking of our final destiny, forever.

 

God gave us minds, and sometimes we need to use them. We need to “wise as a serpent” if we are to expose & defeat the deceitful serpents in the Church.

 

When Scripture says that “The Lord is not slack” is there room for any slackness? Maybe just a little slackness?  NO, NEVER.  And He is not willing that any should perish.”  This emphatic negative statement proves the positive side, which is: If none are lost, then all must and will be saved.

 

Now then, how many are included in the “any” that God does not wish to perish?  NONE! Not even one.  Therefore the “all” in this verse is EVERYONE WHO IS NOT INCLUDED IN THE “ANY,” and that’s EVERYONE!

 

One more point:  Will God fulfill all, every, minus none, of His desires and pleasures?

 

“Declaring the end from the beginning, and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure.  Calling a ravenous bird from the east, the man that executes my counsel from a far country: yea, I have spoken it, I will also bring it to pass; I have purposed it, I will also do it(Isa. 46:40-41).

 

God has “spoken it,” He has “purposed it,” He will therefore, “bring it to pass,” and “DO IT.”  Even if we take out the word “all” in this verse, God will still do everything he has spoken or purposed.  We can now use this principle throughout the Bible.

 

If God has purposed it or spoken it or desires it, then it WILL be done.

“Say unto them, As I live, says the Lord GOD, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked; but [But He DOES take pleasure in their turning and living, therefore they will HAVE to turn {repent} and live eventually] that the wicked turn from his way and live: turn ye, turn ye from your evil ways; for why will ye die, O house of Israel?”  (Ezek. 33:11).

 

If the wicked who do die temporarily, remain dead, or die again, or are tortured in an eternal living death, it will NOT PLEASE GOD, therefore it will not exist eternally. 

 

HOW MANY CONSTITUTE “THE WHOLE WORLD?”

 

Does “the WHOLE WORLD” sometimes mean only a portion of the entire complete world, as this verse suggests:

 

“First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that your faith is spoken of throughout whole world(Rom. 1:8).

 

“World”—Greek, kosmos, “orderly arrangement, the world, including its inhabitants.”

 

Was there faith really spoken to ALL inhabitants back then? China?

 

Greek:  “is BEING proclaimed”—Rotherham & Concordant.  And so now even in China their faith really “IS being proclaimed.”

 

In all verses, “the whole world” means the inhabitants of the planet:

 

“And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world”  (I John 2:2).

 

A “propitiation” is an ATONEMENT (a covering—it covers sin).

 

Atonement”—kaphar, “to cover, placate, conceal, appease, cleanse, disannul, forgive, be merciful, pardon, purge away, reconcile.”

 

Whole”—holos, “whole or all, complete, altogether, every whit, throughout.”

 

That’s what Jesus IS, but if He doesn’t actually do it, then He ISN’T the propitiation for the whole world,” and this Scripture lies.  To really “be” the propitiation for the whole world, Jesus must, actually, and literally, and totally, “COVER, PLACATE, CONCEAL, APPEASE, CLEANSE, DISANNUL, FORGIVE, BE MERCIFUL, PARDON, PURGE, AND RECONCILE, “the WHOLE world.”

Of course man’s “free will” makes a liar of all the Scriptures!

 

“And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent

the Son to be the Saviour of the world”  (I John 4:14).

 

If Jesus doesn’t save the world—the inhabitants of the world, then He is NOT THE SAVIOUR OF THE WORLD, and again the Scripture would lie!

 

“…for when Thy judgments are in the earth, the inhabitants of the world will learn [Rotherham and Young both say: “will HAVE learned”] righteousness”  (Isaiah 26:9).

 

Why would anyone not want to believe this marvelous Scripture?  The reason they give is that other Scriptures contradict all Scriptures that which speak of the salvation of humanity.

 

     2Co 5:19  To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.

    

ReconciliationGK katallage, “exchange, adjustment, restoration (to the Divine), favor, atonement, reconciliation.”

WorldGk kosmos, “the world and its inhabitants.

 

And God has already reconciled the world and its inhabitants.  The redemption has already been paid; it is a done deal. Sin has already been judged; now all that remains is the judgment of the sinners.

 

Not even theologians, it seems, can understand that when God forgives our sins, we must then stop sinning. And since most of the world does not stop sinning, God is going to JUDGE sin out of them.

 

“The next day John sees Jesus coming unto him, and says, Behold the Lamb of God, which takes away the sin of the world”  (John 1:29).

 

And just when did Jesus “take away the sin of the world?”  Is there still sin I the world?  It should be translated, “is taking away”—Concordant, Young.  This is accomplished in two fire JUDGMENTS.

 

“The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death”  (I Cor. 15:26).

 

Notice what happens at the Judgment of the ungodly:

 

“And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death (Rev. 20:14).

 

If the second death does not destroy “death,” then we have a problem, the “last enemy death” will never be destroyed or abolished, which contradicts I Cor. 15:26).  “Death” (all death) will be abolished—then the only alternative is that all must live and Son and Daughter of God, rather than “enemies” which will all be abolished.

 

SOME SCRIPTURES YOU MIGHT NOT HAVE CONSIDERED

 

“Thy will be done, in earth as it is in heaven”  (Matt.6:10).

 

Are there sinners being tortured in eternally in heaven?  Then nether will they be on earth.

 

“And they built the high places of Baal, which are in the valley of the son of Hinnom, to cause their sons and their daughters to pass through the fire unto Molech; which I commanded them not, neither came it into my mind [Heb: ‘heart’] that they should do this abomination, to cause Judah to sin”  (Jer. 32:35).

 

How could God call burning people in fire an abomination which never entered His heart, if indeed, He has planned from the creation to burn in fire most of humanity for all eternity?  Is God calling His OWN works and Judgments, an ABOMINATION?  God forbid.  Let’s back up to Jer. 32:17….

 

“Ah Lord GOD! behold, thou hast made the heaven and the earth by thy great power and stretched out arm, and there is nothing too hard for thee.”  

 

Christians, preachers, and theologians have no idea the blasphemy they are committing by teaching the world that God is a contradiction of all these marvelous verses of Scripture.

 

“For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:  Not of works, lest any man should boast.  For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them”  (Eph. 2:8-10).

 

If the GRACE, and FAITH, and ACHIEVEMENT, and GOOD WORKS

And the CHOOSING, and the CALLING, are all of God, how can man be responsible for his own salvation? How can any be lost?

 

The absence of the word “all” works against the theologians in the next three verses.   Are these verses true or is Jesus a liar?  “and the scripture cannot be broken(Jn. 10:35). So anyone, everyone, who is lost, a human, or a sinner, JESUS MUST SAVE. 

 

“For the Son of man is come to seek and to save that which was lost”  (Luke 19:10).

 

“For the Son of man [Gk: anthropos---human] is not come to destroy [Gk: apollumi—destroy, lose, perish] men's [Gk: anthropos—human] lives, but to save them (Luke 9:56).

 

“This is a faithful saying, and worthy of all acceptation, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners; of whom I am chief”  (I Tim. 1:15).

 

Every man [human] will be saved by fire:

 

“Every man’s [Gk; hekastos—‘every, each, ane, every one, every man, every woman’ Strong’s #1538] work shall be manifest…by fire…If any man's work shall be burned, he shall suffer loss: but he himself shall be saved; yet so BY FIRE(I Cor. 3:13 & 15).

 

Not even John 3:16 is understood by the Church:

 

“For God so LOVED the world that He gave His only Begotten Son…For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn [Gk: krino – ‘punish, sentence, condemn, damn’] the world; but that the world through him [might be—not in the Greek] SAVED (John 3:16 & 17).

 

Yes, one must believe Jesus, but this verse does not prove that all will not eventually believe through Judgment, after all, we came to believe in and accept Jesus through His calling & Judgment on us.

 

“…that God may BE all…..IN all (I Cor. 15:28).

 

Will God ever “be” less than He really is?  Then if the first “all” means completely, who can deny the second “all” is only a partial?  Does God really talk to us in such a convoluted and deceitful manner?

 

CONCLUSION

 

If God FAILS to accomplish all that He desires in this physical world, what assurance do we have that He will not continue to fail at His desires throughout all eternity?

 

If God fails to save all humanity, it matters not WHY He fails. If He fails, He fails, and if He fails where He did not want to fail, then His is NOT GOD AT ALL!  But God is God, and He will SAVE ALL!

 

BOTTOM LINE:  It is not necessary; we are not obligated; it is not incumbent upon us; we do not NEED to prove our faith to the satisfaction of those who DESPISE THE WORD OF GOD!